8th June 2003, 2:29 AM
So far, everyone has homosexual and heterosexual urges, and it varies among people...
This is looking very much like a population distribution function. If it is a continuum, is it so hard to believe that there are people far away from the mean (completely straight) that have more homosexual urges than heterosexual urges?
Why is it better to follow one type of urge while repressing the other type? When I mentioned contraception, I was thinking ahead a bit. Weltaii has made the argument of natural sex. Sex exists to have babies. Homosexual sex is therefore not natural because it does not result in babies. heterosexual sex with contraception, like homosexual sex, does not result in babies. So how is one more natural than the other?
This is looking very much like a population distribution function. If it is a continuum, is it so hard to believe that there are people far away from the mean (completely straight) that have more homosexual urges than heterosexual urges?
Why is it better to follow one type of urge while repressing the other type? When I mentioned contraception, I was thinking ahead a bit. Weltaii has made the argument of natural sex. Sex exists to have babies. Homosexual sex is therefore not natural because it does not result in babies. heterosexual sex with contraception, like homosexual sex, does not result in babies. So how is one more natural than the other?