7th June 2003, 2:46 PM
Quote:Originally posted by Nintendarse
Wetaii, if everyone has homosexual urges and heterosexual urges:
1.) Does everyone have the same amount of each?
2.) Why is it better to follow one type of urge while repressing the other? You could use the "natural" argument, but then that puts you in the group that is against using birth control, which puts you firmly in the minority.
1. I believe that varies based on the individual. I don't believe homosexual urges are anywhere near as numerous as heterosexual urges normally.
2. I don't see how one could equate sexual preference with birth control. I'm not seeing the connection.
Quote: Maybe, and in most cases probably, but not necessarially. As I said, actions do not make you definitely that... if you hit someone once that doesn't mean that you are prone to violence... sure in most cases the people are. But not in all. As I said, I just can't understand how just the act would make you consider them gay... what if they still are attracted to women, huh? Are they now bisexual?
Exactly. You cannot, as OB1 said, accidentally have gay sex. The only single way you can have gay sex and not be gay is if you are raped.
YOU CANNOT HIDE FOREVER
WE STAND AT THE DOOR
WE STAND AT THE DOOR